When two or more people assemble to do a lawful act in a violent manner, the assembly is not unlawful unless violence actually occurs or there is a clear and present danger that violence will occur immediately. So my question is... How can people marching for something that needs to be heard to be an unlawful assembly when there was really no public disturbance? I mean clearly it needs to be heard and to me its like the government seems to be making it violent and calling it a riot or a rout when it was not clearly violent...
Occupy LA
